cnearing

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Re: The Modal Ontological Argument Begs the Question
« Reply #90 on: May 13, 2016, 06:43:24 AM »
Nothing about that resembles any sort of rational account of epistemic justification.

G is coherent.

~G is coherent. 

Neither is evidence for <>G or ~<>G
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ParaclitosLogos

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Re: The Modal Ontological Argument Begs the Question
« Reply #91 on: May 13, 2016, 06:57:54 AM »

You mean, NO, because yo say so.

Let´s not talk to each other, please. I wish you well.

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cnearing

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Re: The Modal Ontological Argument Begs the Question
« Reply #92 on: May 13, 2016, 07:28:22 AM »
No, that's not what I mean.  I am correctly pointing out that you aren't offering any sort of cogent epistemic account of evidence such that mere coherency constitutes evidence for metaphysical possibility.

Also, you keep saying you don want to talk to me, but then you keep talking to me.  What's up with that?
P((A => B), A) = P(A => B) + P(A) - 1

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ParaclitosLogos

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Re: The Modal Ontological Argument Begs the Question
« Reply #93 on: May 13, 2016, 07:58:43 AM »
No, that's not what I mean.  I am correctly pointing out that you aren't offering any sort of cogent epistemic account of evidence such that mere coherency constitutes evidence for metaphysical possibility.

Also, you keep saying you don want to talk to me, but then you keep talking to me.  What's up with that?

Please, don´t address my posts, and, I will do the same.

Don´t address me, and, I will do the same.

Thanks.

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jockito

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Re: The Modal Ontological Argument Begs the Question
« Reply #94 on: May 13, 2016, 09:48:58 AM »
As I have stated,  I don´t think any one individual should have epistemic warrant to hold both, because, of how rational intuition works and how coherence work, specially, with respect to states of affairs that are either necessary or impossible.

If one is having a rational intuitions of  a proposition p, that states that some concept A, wich is necessary or impossible, is coherent, in a given high cognitive state Level L, in a possetion of a richly enough concept repertoire C, such that if one were to seek a theory systematization of those intuitions, those systematizations would support p, and, such that for any other L' and C' , such that L' is greater than L and C' is contains C, and the given theory systematization would support p, then,

It is very plausibly the case that it is impossible that one would have intuitions of  ~p for any L'' and C'' , where L'' is equal or greater than L, and C'' contains C.

Please excuse my imprecise statements, I can see after you have pointed it out.

It seems to me that the beef you and cnearing have with each other is over whether or not coherency supports possibility (is this correct?). I would think that while coherency is a necessary condition for possibility, it isn't a sufficient condition for possibility. It is for this reason that I don't think coherency alone of either MGB or ~MGB is sufficient to grant it's possibility.

Correct me if this is wrong but my idea of coherency is that something is logically consistent; that [merely] as a concept, it is meaningful. I.e. "a red colourless car" is meaningless. Coherency means that what we are saying isn't just literal gibberish.

In contrast, my idea of possibility is that something could actually be instantiated in some possible world.

So while coherency deals with meaning and logic, possibility has something to say about the limitations of reality - what reality can or could have included, i.e. possible worlds.

To me, there is an enormous chasm between these two, the latter being much more difficult to prove. I'm not entirely sure how we could even know if certain concepts are possible, or to even know what is and what isn't a possible world. It seems hugely speculative to say that because a concept has meaning in my mind and is logically consistent, it could be possible to exist in the actual world (or it exists in some possible world). Do you think that in principle, something can be coherent and yet impossible? I.e. does coherency necessitate possibility? if so, why? If not, then why should coherency alone be a sufficient reason to accept possibility?

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ParaclitosLogos

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Re: The Modal Ontological Argument Begs the Question
« Reply #95 on: May 14, 2016, 01:23:37 AM »
As I have stated,  I don´t think any one individual should have epistemic warrant to hold both, because, of how rational intuition works and how coherence work, specially, with respect to states of affairs that are either necessary or impossible.

If one is having a rational intuitions of  a proposition p, that states that some concept A, wich is necessary or impossible, is coherent, in a given high cognitive state Level L, in a possetion of a richly enough concept repertoire C, such that if one were to seek a theory systematization of those intuitions, those systematizations would support p, and, such that for any other L' and C' , such that L' is greater than L and C' is contains C, and the given theory systematization would support p, then,

It is very plausibly the case that it is impossible that one would have intuitions of  ~p for any L'' and C'' , where L'' is equal or greater than L, and C'' contains C.

Please excuse my imprecise statements, I can see after you have pointed it out.

It seems to me that the beef you and cnearing have with each other is over whether or not coherency supports possibility (is this correct?). I would think that while coherency is a necessary condition for possibility, it isn't a sufficient condition for possibility. It is for this reason that I don't think coherency alone of either MGB or ~MGB is sufficient to grant it's possibility.

Correct me if this is wrong but my idea of coherency is that something is logically consistent; that [merely] as a concept, it is meaningful. I.e. "a red colourless car" is meaningless. Coherency means that what we are saying isn't just literal gibberish.

In contrast, my idea of possibility is that something could actually be instantiated in some possible world.

So while coherency deals with meaning and logic, possibility has something to say about the limitations of reality - what reality can or could have included, i.e. possible worlds.

To me, there is an enormous chasm between these two, the latter being much more difficult to prove. I'm not entirely sure how we could even know if certain concepts are possible, or to even know what is and what isn't a possible world. It seems hugely speculative to say that because a concept has meaning in my mind and is logically consistent, it could be possible to exist in the actual world (or it exists in some possible world). Do you think that in principle, something can be coherent and yet impossible? I.e. does coherency necessitate possibility? if so, why? If not, then why should coherency alone be a sufficient reason to accept possibility?


Hi Jockito.

Even if some A is not a sufficient condition for a B, but only a necessary condition for B, A would usually qualify as evidence for B, under several accounts of evidence.

I don´t want to derail our conversation on other topics (like probability) , but, to try one approach, to illustrate: a probabilistic account of evidence would have it that x is evidence for y if P(y|x) > P(y) (probability of y given x, is higher than the antecedent probability of y) ,  and by bayes theorem:

P( B|A) = P( A| B) * P(B)/P( A)
then if we check when the evidence critiera (P(y|x) > P(y)  ) applies
 
P( B|A) = P( A| B) * P(B)/P( A) > P(B)
which yields
P(A|B) > P(A)    , Since A is a necessary condition for B, B predicts 100% that A, then, P(A|B) = 1, thus, as long as the antecedent probability of A is not 1, A is evidence for B.

So, as I agree and you state "coherency is a necessary condition for possibility" implies that coherence is evidence for possibility.

With that out of the way, coherency is that something is logically consistent, mostly, when it comes to coherent propositions, when it comes to a concept, at least, in philosophical research  it is a much more richer and complex concept, in fact, it is a debated question, and, there are several accounts of what it is, and how/why/when it obtains.

In very general terms, a cathegory of coherent concepts is a class of concepts that "hang" together, there are several measures of coherence, depending on the account.

One account that might be illuminating is that concepts are the knowledge of our theories of the world , or at least are embeded in our knowledge of the world, here, theory and knowledge does not refere specifically to achademic knowledge, but, very broadly to any explanations we construct of the world, even those that are subconsciously built in the background (in the back of our heads, to put it some way).

Two relevant concepts are  the internal structure of the conceptual cathegory that deals with ways features relate (e.g structure function relations, causal schemata, etc...), and the other, is the role the concept plays on the backgrond  of our knowledge, how it fits in "the cosmic machine" (Quine) that is our minds.


My example about evidence above, should close somewhat that chasm, but, if it does not, you need to avoid running, inadvertenly, an argument from incredulity (which is fallacious reasoning), the chasm could plausibly be fixed by reading on the subject.

Nevertheless, I don´t see what is the problem  in approaching the question of if something is possible or not, we do this all the time, with various degrees of success, depending on the matter (its complexity,etc...).

I don´t think anyone doubts that it is possible that aliens exist, now, there are two ways of saying this, one is that it is as far as we know (we have not determine that it is false) aliens exist , this is what is called epistemic possibility, but, there is also another type of possibility we are taping in, and that is metaphysical or broadly logical possibility, when we think or say that it is possible that aliens exist (in the epistemic possibility sense) we also mean in the broadly logical possibility  sense, because, if we thought that aliens were like 2+2=5 or, spheric cubes, we would right, then and there, deny that it is possible (in any sense) that they exist , even merely, in the epistemic sense, but in fact, the contrary is the case, even if it turned out that aliens do not in fact exist, most would still think that it is possible (in the broadly logical possibility sense) that they do, that they could exist, nevertheless.

There is nothing much speculative,  in that our cognitive faculties allows to aproximate reality (what is, what is not, what could be, what couldn´t be, what has to be), defeasibly, imperfectly, but persistently.

As far as I can tell, absolute incoherency wich implies logical inconsistency, implies impossibility(as you said it is a necessary condition for possibility).


I hope it helps.

I should be in bed by now, good night.
« Last Edit: May 14, 2016, 08:01:33 AM by ontologicalme »

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Jenna Black

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Re: The Modal Ontological Argument Begs the Question
« Reply #96 on: May 14, 2016, 04:25:40 PM »
Let G be the proposition "a maximally great being exists."

By definition, then, if G exists, G exists necessarily.  Hence:

1.) G iff []G
2.) <>G iff <>[]G (from 1)
3.) <>[] G iff []G (s5)
4.) G iff <>G (from 1 - 3)

It is fairly trivial, as this argument shows, that G and <>G entail each other.  This means, definitionally, that they have identical entailments and therefore identical extensions--literally, identical literal meanings.

And, of course, we can continue:

5.) If a premise in an argument and the argument's conclusion have the same literal meaning, the argument begs the question.
6.) <>G is a premise in the MOA and G is the conclusion of the MOA.
7.) <>G and G have the same literal meaning. (From 4)
C.) Therefore, the MOA begs the question.
Being one of those people who is averse to this sort of argument, I will say this about my interpretation of St. Anselm's Maximally Great Being argument. A being cannot be maximally great if it does not exist.
Philippians 4:8 Finally, brethren, whatsoever things are true, whatsoever things are honest, whatsoever things are just, whatsoever things are pure, whatsoever things are lovely, whatsoever things are of good report; if there be any virtue, and if there be any praise, think on these things.

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cnearing

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Re: The Modal Ontological Argument Begs the Question
« Reply #97 on: May 14, 2016, 04:36:34 PM »
However, a concept can include the "maximally great" predicate even if that concept is not instantiated.  This is the rudimentary flaw in Anselm's  formulation--equivocation between the concept and the being itself.
P((A => B), A) = P(A => B) + P(A) - 1

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Jenna Black

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Re: The Modal Ontological Argument Begs the Question
« Reply #98 on: May 14, 2016, 05:37:27 PM »
However, a concept can include the "maximally great" predicate even if that concept is not instantiated.  This is the rudimentary flaw in Anselm's  formulation--equivocation between the concept and the being itself.
You are simply wrong about this. If the way you conceptualize "God" is as a non-instantiated concept of maximal greatness, then you simply have not understood what theism speaks of as God, nor have you understood St. Anselm's argument.
Philippians 4:8 Finally, brethren, whatsoever things are true, whatsoever things are honest, whatsoever things are just, whatsoever things are pure, whatsoever things are lovely, whatsoever things are of good report; if there be any virtue, and if there be any praise, think on these things.

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cnearing

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Re: The Modal Ontological Argument Begs the Question
« Reply #99 on: May 14, 2016, 07:36:01 PM »
Whether or not something is instantiated is not part of a concept.
Existence is not a predicate. 

This is another famous (and entirely successful) objection to Anselm's argument.

Honestly, Anselm's argument has been so thoroughly dead for so long it's a little surprising to me anyone try to defend it.
P((A => B), A) = P(A => B) + P(A) - 1

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jockito

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Re: The Modal Ontological Argument Begs the Question
« Reply #100 on: May 14, 2016, 09:00:08 PM »
Hi Jockito.

Even if some A is not a sufficient condition for a B, but only a necessary condition for B, A would usually qualify as evidence for B, under several accounts of evidence.

I don´t want to derail our conversation on other topics (like probability) , but, to try one approach, to illustrate: a probabilistic account of evidence would have it that x is evidence for y if P(y|x) > P(y) (probability of y given x, is higher than the antecedent probability of y) ,  and by bayes theorem:

P( B|A) = P( A| B) * P(B)/P( A)
then if we check when the evidence critiera (P(y|x) > P(y)  ) applies
 
P( B|A) = P( A| B) * P(B)/P( A) > P(B)
which yields
P(A|B) > P(A)    , Since A is a necessary condition for B, B predicts 100% that A, then, P(A|B) = 1, thus, as long as the antecedent probability of A is not 1, A is evidence for B.

So, as I agree and you state "coherency is a necessary condition for possibility" implies that coherence is evidence for possibility.


Right, so we agree that establishing coherence is necessary in the quest to determining possibility. Once we agree that a concept is coherent, we have ticked the first box on our checklist for determining possibility. Great. This is where you would say we have support or evidence for possibility. So lets say we make two side-by-side checklists. We want to know if either MGB or ~MGB is metaphysically possible. So we begin running through the checklists, one for each. We take a look at ~MGB - seems coherent. Let's tick that box. We now have evidence of <>~MGB. But what happens when we get to MGB?

My point is, even if coherency is evidence of possibility, when trying to assess the possibility of MGB or ~MGB, what help is this evidence when trying to discriminate between these two concepts? I think this is where the beef lies between you an cnearing. You and I would agree that establishing coherence is perhaps one of, if not the first step in our quest to determining possibility. Great. But what I can't see is how we get from this point, to somehow excluding ~MGB as possible, because to me, that move should involve showing that ~MGB is incoherent or showing that some other necessary condition for possibility is not met by ~MGB. This is the part which I am not understanding. Coherency alone, to me, doesn't seem evidence enough, to hold MGB over ~MGB. Which is why I can understand someone like cnearing saying that therefore this is not support for MGB - meaning that the support for MGB isn't any stronger than the support for ~MGB, so it doesn't really serve much as a support at all. If perhaps, we were unsure of the coherency of ~MGB, but sure of the coherency of MGB; then I would feel more comfortable accepting that the established coherency of MGB therefore lends support to it and gives us reason to doubt the possibility of ~MGB. But what seems to be the case is, that if we only look at coherency, then MGB doesn't enjoy any privilege over ~MGB. Unless, does it?

What I'm really getting at is, why is the mirror argument for ~MGB any weaker than the argument for MGB? Surely coherency alone is not enough to answer this question.

As far as I can tell, absolute incoherency wich implies logical inconsistency, implies impossibility(as you said it is a necessary condition for possibility).

Right, but the interesting question for me is, does impossibility imply incoherency? That is to say, is there any chasm at all between coherency and possibility? Can something be coherent and yet impossible?

I was of the understanding that coherency doesn't strictly imply possibility.

P.S.
As you say, reading more on this subject would help me a lot in understanding these terms more. I am certainly out of my depth when it comes to philosophy (I'm actually an engineer by day). I'm guessing you are actually in the field of philosophy?

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ParaclitosLogos

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Re: The Modal Ontological Argument Begs the Question
« Reply #101 on: May 14, 2016, 09:08:03 PM »

St. Anselms does not posit existence as a predicate, but, posits two modes of existence, existence-in-the understanding (in the mind) and existence-in-reality,  wich could be characterized as assuming some kind of  Platonic metaphysics, when forms instantiate in particulars ( existence-in-reality) and as universal ideas ( existence-in-the-understanding.

Arguably Kant´s objection is better directed towards DeCartes and Liebeniz OA´s.

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cnearing

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Re: The Modal Ontological Argument Begs the Question
« Reply #102 on: May 14, 2016, 09:20:16 PM »
Anything which exists in the mind is, trivially, not the same as anything which exists outside of the mind.

Anselm's argument is riddled with grievous errors.
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ParaclitosLogos

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Re: The Modal Ontological Argument Begs the Question
« Reply #103 on: May 14, 2016, 09:37:58 PM »
Hi Jockito.

Even if some A is not a sufficient condition for a B, but only a necessary condition for B, A would usually qualify as evidence for B, under several accounts of evidence.

I don´t want to derail our conversation on other topics (like probability) , but, to try one approach, to illustrate: a probabilistic account of evidence would have it that x is evidence for y if P(y|x) > P(y) (probability of y given x, is higher than the antecedent probability of y) ,  and by bayes theorem:

P( B|A) = P( A| B) * P(B)/P( A)
then if we check when the evidence critiera (P(y|x) > P(y)  ) applies
 
P( B|A) = P( A| B) * P(B)/P( A) > P(B)
which yields
P(A|B) > P(A)    , Since A is a necessary condition for B, B predicts 100% that A, then, P(A|B) = 1, thus, as long as the antecedent probability of A is not 1, A is evidence for B.

So, as I agree and you state "coherency is a necessary condition for possibility" implies that coherence is evidence for possibility.


Right, so we agree that establishing coherence is necessary in the quest to determining possibility. Once we agree that a concept is coherent, we have ticked the first box on our checklist for determining possibility. Great. This is where you would say we have support or evidence for possibility. So lets say we make two side-by-side checklists. We want to know if either MGB or ~MGB is metaphysically possible. So we begin running through the checklists, one for each. We take a look at ~MGB - seems coherent. Let's tick that box. We now have evidence of <>~MGB. But what happens when we get to MGB?

My point is, even if coherency is evidence of possibility, when trying to assess the possibility of MGB or ~MGB, what help is this evidence when trying to discriminate between these two concepts? I think this is where the beef lies between you an cnearing. You and I would agree that establishing coherence is perhaps one of, if not the first step in our quest to determining possibility. Great. But what I can't see is how we get from this point, to somehow excluding ~MGB as possible, because to me, that move should involve showing that ~MGB is incoherent or showing that some other necessary condition for possibility is not met by ~MGB. This is the part which I am not understanding. Coherency alone, to me, doesn't seem evidence enough, to hold MGB over ~MGB. Which is why I can understand someone like cnearing saying that therefore this is not support for MGB - meaning that the support for MGB isn't any stronger than the support for ~MGB, so it doesn't really serve much as a support at all. If perhaps, we were unsure of the coherency of ~MGB, but sure of the coherency of MGB; then I would feel more comfortable accepting that the established coherency of MGB therefore lends support to it and gives us reason to doubt the possibility of ~MGB. But what seems to be the case is, that if we only look at coherency, then MGB doesn't enjoy any privilege over ~MGB. Unless, does it?

What I'm really getting at is, why is the mirror argument for ~MGB any weaker than the argument for MGB? Surely coherency alone is not enough to answer this question.

As far as I can tell, absolute incoherency wich implies logical inconsistency, implies impossibility(as you said it is a necessary condition for possibility).

Right, but the interesting question for me is, does impossibility imply incoherency? That is to say, is there any chasm at all between coherency and possibility? Can something be coherent and yet impossible?

I was of the understanding that coherency doesn't strictly imply possibility.

P.S.
As you say, reading more on this subject would help me a lot in understanding these terms more. I am certainly out of my depth when it comes to philosophy (I'm actually an engineer by day). I'm guessing you are actually in the field of philosophy?

Hi, I´m glad we are having some progress, we agree coherence is evidence for possibility.

Just to clarify. 

Coherence of X( /c/X)  is evidence for <>X

this ~X just means it is not the case that X.


Ok, I already tried to answered your worry about coherence (/c/MGB , /c/~MGB) providing evidence for both <>MGB and <>~MGB.

But, I will concede it probably was a somewhat obscrure explanation. Let me see if I can try to clarify further.

This is my answer to that worry:
Quote
As I have stated,  I don´t think any one individual should have epistemic warrant to hold both, because, of how rational intuition works and how coherence works, specially, with respect to states of affairs that are either necessary or impossible.

If one is having a rational intuitions of  a proposition p, that states that some concept A, wich is necessary or impossible, is coherent, in a given high cognitive state Level L, in a possetion of a richly enough concept repertoire C, such that if one were to seek a theory systematization of those intuitions, those systematizations would support p, and, such that for any other L' and C' , such that L' is greater than L and C' is contains C, and the given theory systematization would support p, then,

It is very plausibly the case that it is impossible that one would have intuitions of  ~p for any L'' and C'' , where L'' is equal or greater than L, and C'' contains C.


The point is that at a given state of affairs where one has sufficient understanding of a concept, in good cognitive condition, understanding of a concept that if it obtains it does so  necessarily (and if does not it is impossible that it does), in such a way that at that level of  cognitive conditions or any other level better than the former one finds the concept coherent, this is understood to provide  good evidence for the possibility of the concept.

There are many details that could be fleshed out, but, at this point, it is important to understand the heuristics I described above, any greater cognitive level or condition , in the heuristics I described, will confirm the coherence, this is what is called a-priori estability, in epistemology.   

In the case that one establishes with a-priori estability the coherence of a concept, a concept that if obtains obtains necessarily, then the negation of the concept could not appear to be coherent (since it is impossible), at any such a level of cognition or higher, this is proscribed by the heuristics of a-priori estability  determination.

Assuming this is roughly correct, those who assert that a concept that if obtains, obtains necessarily is coherent and also its negation, evidently have not attain a-priori estability , and thus, their conclusions are not to be taken as reliable evidence for either conclusion.

Imagine for example the concept of the arithmetic operation 24+36=60 (a necessary truth), or the concept of a cubic sphere, purportedly a person who understands determinately with a-priori estability will not find both
24+36=60  and NOT 24+36=60 coherent, when the person has arrived to the sufficient cognitive understanding ( determinate understanding) with a-priori estability of the concept of 24+36=60, as long as the person is in such level of cognition and understanding or better , the person will find 24+26=60 coherent, and not its negation, and, the same goes for the cubic sphere example (though in this case, the result will be that it is incoherent).

If someone finds both  24+36=60 and NOT 24+36=60 coherent we can say that person has not arrived at the sufficient level of understanding and cognition with respect to the concept of the arithmetic operation 24+36=60, and, we should not take his conclusion as reliable evidence for either conclusion.


I hope this clarifies what I am saying, with respect to the worry of the double evidence for necessary concepts and their negations.

PS: I am not a philosopher, not even an student. I am an Engineer by day, I just like reading about these subjects, the former pays beter, the later is for enjoyment.
« Last Edit: May 14, 2016, 10:32:41 PM by ontologicalme »

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ParaclitosLogos

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Re: The Modal Ontological Argument Begs the Question
« Reply #104 on: May 14, 2016, 09:40:48 PM »
Yes, Anselm would agree that anything that merely exists-in-the-mind is, trivially,  not the same as anything which exists outside of the mind.

They were both modes of existence, with a key connection, in his Platonistic metaphysical view.

If Anselm commited any error that was not it, rather, moderns pressume  a different metaphysical world view, and, impose it onto Anselm.
« Last Edit: May 14, 2016, 10:03:00 PM by ontologicalme »